2014年1月30日星期四

ISQI certification CTFL_UK exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: CTFL_UK
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.4 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.6 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: 8002
Exam Name: PRMIA (PRM Certification - Exam II: Mathematical Foundations of Risk Measurement)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Identify the type and common element (that is, common ratio or common difference) of the following
sequence: 6, 12, 24
A. arithmetic sequence, common difference 2
B. arithmetic sequence, common ratio 2
C. geometric sequence, common ratio 2
D. geometric sequence, common ratio 3
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the simplest form of this expression: log2(165/2)
A. 10
B. 32
C. 5/2 + log2(16)
D. log2 (5/2) + log2(16)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Discrete and continuous compounding produce the same results if the discount rate is positive.
B. Continuous compounding is the better method because it results in higher present values compared to
discrete compounding.
C. Continuous compounding can be thought as making the compounding period infinitesimally small.
D. The constant plays an important role in the mathematical description of continuous compounding.
Answer: C

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NO.4 For each of the following functions, indicate whether its graph is concave or convex:
Y = 7x2 + 3x + 9
Y = 6 ln(3x)
Y = exp(-4x)
A. concave, concave, concave
B. concave, convex, convex
C. convex, concave, concave
D. convex, convex, concave
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence: 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ­ ?
A. 1 048 574
B. 1 048 595
C. 2 097 170
D. 2 097 172
Answer: C

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NO.6 For a quadratic equation, which of the following is FALSE?
A. If the discriminant is negative, there are no real solutions
B. If the discriminant is zero, there is only one solution
C. If the discriminant is negative there are two different real solutions
D. If the discriminant is positive there are two different real solutions
Answer: C

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NO.7 You invest $2m in a bank savings account with a constant interest rate of 5% p.a. What is the value of
the investment in 2 years time if interest is compounded quarterly?
A. $2,208,972
B. $2,210,342
C. $2.205,000
D. None of them
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a sequence?
A. , , , ­ , , o
B. , , , , ­
C. , , , , , , ­
D. 30
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the provided answers solves this system of equations?
2y
3x = 3y +x
y2 + x2 = 68
A. x = 1; y = square root of 67
B. x = 2; y = 8
C. x = 2; y = -8
D. x = -2; y = -8
Answer: C

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NO.10 Solve the simultaneous linear equations: x + 2y - 2 = 0 and y - 3x = 8
A. x = 1, y = 0.5
B. x = -2, y = 2
C. x = 2, y = 0
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.11 The sum of the infinite series 1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+.... equals:
A. 12
B. Infinity
C. 128
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Every linear function is also a quadratic function.
B. A function is defined by its domain together with its action.
C. For finite and small domains, the action of a function may be specified by a list.
D. A function is a rule that assigns to every value x at least one value of y.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following properties is exhibited by multiplication, but not by addition?
A. associativity
B. commutativity
C. distributivity
D. invertibility
Answer: C

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NO.14 The natural logarithm of x is:.?
A. the inverse function of exp(x)
B. log(e)
C. always greater than x, for x>0
D. 46
Answer: A

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NO.15 When a number is written with a fraction as an exponent, such as , which of the following is the correct
computation?
A. Take the square-root of 75 and raise it to the 5th power
B. Divide 75 by 2, then raise it to the 5th power
C. Multiply 75 by 2.5
D. Square 75, then take the fifth root of it
Answer: A

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NO.16 You invest $100 000 for 3 years at a continuously compounded rate of 3%. At the end of 3 years, you
redeem the investment. Taxes of 22% are applied at the time of redemption. What is your approximate
after-tax profit from the investment, rounded to $10?
A. $9420
B. $7350
C. $7230
D. $7100
Answer: B

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NO.17 Find the roots, if they exist in the real numbers, of the quadratic equation
A. 4 and -2
B. -4 and 2
C. 1 and 0
D. No real roots
Answer: D

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NO.18 You intend to invest $100 000 for five years. Four different interest payment options are available.
Choose the interest option that yields the highest return over the five year period.
A. a lump-sum payment of $22 500 on maturity (in five years)
B. an annually compounded rate of 4.15%
C. a quarterly-compounded rate of 4.1%
D. a continuously-compounded rate of 4%
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the 40th term in the following series: 4, 14, 30, 52, ­ ?
A. 240
B. 4598
C. 4840
D. 4960
Answer: C

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NO.20 Let a, b and c be real numbers. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The commutativity of multiplication is defined by
B. The existence of negatives is defined by
C. The distributivity of multiplication is defined by
D. The associativity of multiplication is defined by
Answer: C

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Best Motorola Solutions MSC-121 test training guide

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Exam Code: MSC-121
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.2 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.5 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.6 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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Exam Code: STI-884
Exam Name: Simens (SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is a Value Chief?
A. The prospect has a PC network upgrade planned for implementing a new application.
B. The prospect is moving to a new, more cost-effective office space.
C. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
D. The prospect is interested in IP technology but is uneasy about a large initial investment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion for your
customers?
A. Customers can maximize the lifetime value of the solutions and services that you provide them.
B. Customers need to replace their existing applications with new applications.
C. Customers can implement solutions that need a dedicated team to maintain and update frequently.
D. Customers can buy the capabilities that they need now and activate new capabilities with "license
keys" when they are ready in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is driven by growth through productivity? (Choose
two)
A. The prospect is evaluating phone system options due to business changes or expansions.
B. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
C. The prospect needs to install a new phone system to provide for the required capacity of the office
space.
D. The phone system of the prospect is outdated and cannot keep up with the growing business
demands.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What makes the Siemens Unified Communications solutions unique in the marketplace?
A. They are proven and mature offerings that operate with your customer's existing IT environment and
provide easy growth and expansion.
B. They leverage existing applications such as Microsoft Outlook.
C. They offer cost savings and productivity enhancing benefits.
D. They enable employees to remain connected when they are out of office.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Why is it critical for customers to have a cost-effective solution that meets the basic needs of small and
medium sized businesses?
A. They want something that works with their existing infrastructure, which is easy to set up and manage.
They typically don t have the money to experiment on new technologies.
B. They need support to help make communications services easier to understand and to promote
internally.
C. A little more than half of small businesses now run a local area network, with 76% of these firms using
a server-based network.
D. They want something that improves business growth by 30% annually.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which factor affects small and medium sized businesses' ability to make informed decisions about
technology?
A. Customer segmentation.
B. Lack of dedicated IT staff.
C. Unclear business strategy.
D. Lack of market knowledge.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which options apply to the Siemens Open Communications strategy? (Choose two)
A. It helps deliver solutions to only small sized businesses.
B. It helps Siemens realize the LifeWorks vision.
C. It provides customers with business value by impacting their growth.
D. It is Siemens' core company strategy and positioning.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which business objectives does the Siemens approach to Open Communications impact while
providing business value to customers? (Choose two)
A. Promoting employee competition.
B. Reducing operation costs.
C. Improving asset efficiency.
D. Enhancing business knowledge.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: S90-20A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Security Lab)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Service Consumer A sends a request message to Service A (1) after which Service A retrieves financial
data from Database A (2). Service A then sends a request message with the retrieved data to Service B
(3). Service B exchanges messages with Service C (4) and Service D (5), which perform a series of
calculations on the data and return the results to Service A. Service A uses these results to update
Database A (7) and finally sends a response message to Service Consumer A (8). Component B has
direct, independent access to Database A and is fully trusted by Database A. Both Component B and
Database A reside within Organization A. Service Consumer A and Services A, B, C, and D are external to
the organizational boundary of Organization A.
Component B is considered a mission critical program that requires guaranteed access to and fast
response from Database A. Service A was recently the victim of a denial of service attack, which resulted
in Database A becoming unavailable for extended periods of time (which further compromised
Component B). Additionally, Services B, C, and D have repeatedly been victims of malicious intermediary
attacks, which have further destabilized the performance of Service A.
How can this architecture be improved to prevent these attacks?
A. A utility service is created to encapsulate Database A and to assume responsibility for authenticating all
access to the database by Service A and any other service consumers. Due to the mission critical
requirements of Component B, the utility service further contains logic that strictly limits the amount of
concurrent requests made to Database A from outside the organizational boundary. The Data
Confidentiality and Data Origin Authentication patterns are applied to all message exchanged within the
external service composition in order to establish message-layer security.
B. Service Consumer A generates a private/public key pair and sends this public key and identity
information to Service A. Service A generates its own private/public key pair and sends it back to Service
Consumer A. Service Consumer A uses the public key of Service A to encrypt a randomly generated
session key and then sign the encrypted session key with the private key. The encrypted, signed session
key is sent to Service A. Now, this session key can be used for secure message-layer communication
between Service Consumer A and Service A. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern is applied to establish
a perimeter service that encapsulates Database A in order to authenticate all external access requests.
C. Services B, C, and D randomly generate Session Key K, and use this key to encrypt request and
response messages with symmetric encryption. Session Key K is further encrypted itself asymmetrically.
When each service acts as a service consumer by invoking another service, it decrypts the encrypted
Session Key K and the invoked service uses the key to decrypt the encrypted response. Database A is
replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed by Service A and other
external service consumers.
D. The Direct Authentication pattern is applied so that when Service Consumer A submits security
credentials, Service A will be able to evaluate the credentials in order to authenticate the request
message. If the request message is permitted, Service A invokes the other services and accesses
Database A. Database A is replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed
by Service A and other external service consumers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Service A exchanges messages with Service B multiple times during the same runtime service activity.
Communication between Services A and B has been secured using transport-layer security. With each
service request message sent to Service B (1A. IB), Service A includes an
X.509 certificate, signed by an external Certificate Authority (CA). Service B validates the certificate by
retrieving the public key of the CA (2A. 2B) and verifying the digital signature of the
X.509 certificate. Service B then performs a certificate revocation check against a separate external CA
repository (3A, 3B). No intermediary service agents reside between Service A and Service B.
To fulfill a new security requirement, Service A needs to be able to verify that the response message sent
by Service B has not been modified during transit. Secondly, the runtime performance between Services
A and B has been unacceptably poor and therefore must be improved without losing the ability to verify
Service A's security credentials. It has been determined that the latency is being caused by redundant
security processing carried out by Service B.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that fulfills these requirements?
A. Apply the Trusted Subsystem pattern to introduce a utility service that performs the security processing
instead of Service B. The utility service can verify the security credentials of request messages from
Service A and digitally sign messages sent to Service A to enable verification of message integrity.
Furthermore, the utility service can perform the verification of security credentials submitted by Service A
only once per runtime service activity. After the first messageexchange, it can issue a SAML token to
Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A can then use this session-based token
with subsequent message exchange. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in contrast
to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message exchange.
B. Service B needs to be redesigned so that it performs the verification of request messages from Service
A only for the first message exchange during the runtime service activity. Thereafter, it can issue a SAML
token to Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A then uses this session-based
token with subsequent message exchanges. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in
contrast to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message
exchange.
C. WS-SecurityPolicy transport binding assertions can be used to improve performance via
transport-layer security The use of symmetric keys can keep the encryption and decryption overhead to a
minimum, which will further reduce the latency between Service A and Service B. By encrypting the
messages, attackers cannot modify message contents, so no additional actions for integrity verification
are needed.
D. The Data Origin Authentication pattern can be applied together with the Service Perimeter Guard
pattern to establish a perimeter service that can verify incoming request messages sent to Service B and
to filter response messages sent to Service A. The repository containing the verification information about
the Certificate Authorities can be replicated in the trust domain of the perimeter service. When access is
requested by Service A, the perimeter service evaluates submitted security credentials by checking them
against the locally replicated repository. Furthermore, it can encrypt messages sent to Service A by
Service B. and attach a signed hash value.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: L50-501
Exam Name: LSI (LSI SVM5 Implementation Engineer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.4 At the end of the SVM installation, which three actions should you perform to ensure that the installation
is correct.? (Choose three.)
A. Test failover between two SVMs to make sure that you can successfully failover between SVMs.
B. Make sure that the SVM recognizes the DPM and that the DPM recognizes all of the devices that are
connected to the DPM ports.
C. Make sure that the SVM and DPM recognize the LUNs available on the storage array.
D. Make sure that the DPMs can communicate with each other.
E. Make sure that the LSI Failover Driver is installed on the SVM server.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 When adding storage to an existing SVM pool, what must be considered?
A. Growing the LUN will provide better utilization of storage.
B. Always pay attention to the performance characteristics of the storage.
C. Always select storage with different storage characteristics.
D. Adding storage to an existing pool will reduce performance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What should you do before starting the SVM server software upgrade process?
A. Reboot the SVM server.
B. Disconnect the SVM Fibre Channel cables.
C. Shut down the SVM Web server.
D. Uninstall the SVM server agent.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where is the SVM metadata stored?
A. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drives.
B. On a mirror, between the managed storage array LUNs and the SVM internal hard drive.
C. On a mirror, between managed storage array LUNs.
D. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drive partitions.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement about the SVM server software upgrade is true?
A. The SVM server must be rebooted as part of the software upgrade process.
B. The SVM server must only be rebooted on major versions, e.g 5.1 to 5.2.
C. The SVM server can stay online during the software upgrade.
D. The DPMs must be taken offline during the SVM server reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Two SVM servers in SVM Domain A are connected over Fibre Channel with two SVM servers in SVM
Domain B. The SVM servers' HBA at each domain can see the SVM servers' HBA at the other SVM
domain. What should you do to interconnect the SVM domains?
A. An SVM automatically negotiates the connection with the SVMs in other domains over Fibre Channel.
B. SVM domains should not be interconnected.
C. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect SVM
Domain.
D. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect FC
Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your current SAN environment includes a storage system with LUNs exposed directly to Windows hosts.
You have been asked to integrate this storage system into the new SVM domain. Which statement is
correct?
A. The existing data can be moved to an SVM virtual volume while the application is still writing to the
source LUN.
B. The physical LUN containing the data must be unmounted from the host while the data is been moved
to an SVM virtual volume.
C. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the host while the data is been moved to an
SVM virtual volume.
D. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the SVM servers while the data is been
moved to an SVM virtual volume.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: GCIH
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Certified Incident Handler)
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NO.1 You see the career section of a company's Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You
conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server 2003
and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are you using to
perform hacking?
A. Scanning
B. Covering tracks
C. Reconnaissance
D. Gaining access
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer. Using
the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following?
A. Brute force attack
B. Mail bombing
C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It records all keystrokes on the victim's computer in a predefined log file.
B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.
C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.
D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.5 Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable to its
users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
Answer: A

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NO.6 Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of the
following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D

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NO.7 John works as a Professional Penetration Tester. He has been assigned a project to test the Website
security of www.we-are-secure Inc. On the We-are-secure Website login page, he enters ='or''=' as a
username and successfully logs on to the user page of the Web site. Now, John asks the we-aresecure
Inc. to improve the login page PHP script. Which of the following suggestions can John give to improve
the security of the we-are-secure Website login page from the SQL injection attack?
A. Use the escapeshellarg() function
B. Use the session_regenerate_id() function
C. Use the mysql_real_escape_string() function for escaping input
D. Use the escapeshellcmd() function
Answer: C

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NO.8 Adam, a malicious hacker, wants to perform a reliable scan against a remote target. He is not
concerned about being stealth at this point.
Which of the following type of scans would be most accurate and reliable?
A. UDP sacn
B. TCP Connect scan
C. ACK scan
D. Fin scan
Answer: B

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NO.9 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. Company has a Windows-based network. All
computers run on Windows XP. Manager of the Sales department complains Adam about the unusual
behavior of his computer. He told Adam that some pornographic contents are suddenly appeared on his
computer overnight. Adam suspects that some malicious software or Trojans have been installed on the
computer. He runs some diagnostics programs and Port scanners and found that the Port 12345, 12346,
and 20034 are open. Adam also noticed some tampering with the Windows registry, which causes one
application to run every time when Windows start.
Which of the following is the most likely reason behind this issue?
A. Cheops-ng is installed on the computer.
B. Elsave is installed on the computer.
C. NetBus is installed on the computer.
D. NetStumbler is installed on the computer.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. mutt
B. scp
C. rsync
D. smbclient
Answer: D

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NO.12 Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security features
such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering on his wireless
router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is sometimes 16 Mbps and
sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management utility wireless router and finds
out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through his wireless connection. Paul checks the
router's logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are the primary goals of the incident handling team?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Freeze the scene.
B. Repair any damage caused by an incident.
C. Prevent any further damage.
D. Inform higher authorities.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.14 Choose and reorder the steps of an incident handling process in their correct order.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of running
the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be used as
tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.16 Buffer overflows are one of the major errors used for exploitation on the Internet today. A buffer
overflow occurs when a particular operation/function writes more data into a variable than the variable
was designed to hold.
Which of the following are the two popular types of buffer overflows?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Dynamic buffer overflows
B. Stack based buffer overflow
C. Heap based buffer overflow
D. Static buffer overflows
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just bought a
brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam uses antivirus software,
anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft patches. After another month of
working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even more noticeably slow. He also notices a
window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly disappear. He has seen these windows show up,
even when he has not been on the Internet. Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free
space available. Since his hard drive is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem.?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It disrupts services to a specific computer.
B. It changes the configuration of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. It saturates network resources.
D. It disrupts connections between two computers, preventing communications between services.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a
countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability
from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against __________.
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
Answer: A

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NO.20 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
StackGuard (as used by Immunix), ssp/ProPolice (as used by OpenBSD), and Microsoft's /GS option use
______ defense against buffer overflow attacks.
A. canary
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
Answer: D

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NO.22 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B

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NO.23 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He performs Web vulnerability scanning on the We-are-secure server. The
output of the scanning test is as follows:
C:\whisker.pl -h target_IP_address
-- whisker / v1.4.0 / rain forest puppy / www.wiretrip.net -- = - = - = - = - =
= Host: target_IP_address
= Server: Apache/1.3.12 (Win32) ApacheJServ/1.1
mod_ssl/2.6.4 OpenSSL/0.9.5a mod_perl/1.22
+ 200 OK: HEAD /cgi-bin/printenv
John recognizes /cgi-bin/printenv vulnerability ('Printenv' vulnerability) in the We_are_secure server.
Which of the following statements about 'Printenv' vulnerability are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. This vulnerability helps in a cross site scripting attack.
B. 'Printenv' vulnerability maintains a log file of user activities on the Website, which may be useful for the
attacker.
C. The countermeasure to 'printenv' vulnerability is to remove the CGI script.
D. With the help of 'printenv' vulnerability, an attacker can input specially crafted links and/or other
malicious scripts.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.24 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to train the
members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the incident response
team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN.
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following tools is used for vulnerability scanning and calls Hydra to launch a dictionary
attack?
A. Whishker
B. Nessus
C. SARA
D. Nmap
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A

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NO.27 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc. Which of the following types of
Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or
modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.29 Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack
releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.
Answer: C

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NO.30 In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes to
the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
Answer: A

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