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Exam Code: HP2-T11
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) technology uses the same electrical and physical interface as which
technology?
A. IDE
B. ATA
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.2 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which RAID implementation allows for simultaneous failure of multiple drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements apply to AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three )
A. Each processor can access only its own memory
B. Requests for memory access are handled by the Northbndge ASIC
C. Each processor can access the full complement of installed memory
D. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors
E. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors
F. Requests for memory access are handled directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport lnk
Answer: ADF

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NO.5 What is the difference between single-ended SCSI and differential SCSI?
A. Single-ended uses twisted pair wires
B. Differential is more susceptible to noise
C. Differential uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
D. Single-ended uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a characteristic of Double Data Rate (DDR) RAM?
A. sends data every other clock cycle
B. sends data on the rising edge of the clock cycle only
C. sends data on the falling edge of the clock cycle only
D. sends data on both the rising and falling edge of each clock cycle
Answer: D

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NO.7 What best describes PCI-X architecture?
A. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
B. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
C. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
D. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer has an existing mission critical database application using approximately 20TB of network
storage and plans to add a web server component to the existing environment to increase the storage by
50% Which tape storage technology would you recommend?
A. Autoloader
B. Travan Tape System
C. business-class library
D. enterprise-class library
Answer: C

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NO.9 The system administrator typically performs a full backup every Monday and incremental backups on
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays In addition, full backups are performed at the end of the week
and at the end of the month
Which GFSterm refers to the monthly full backup?
A. son
B. sister
C. father
D. grandfather
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement is correct when comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron
processors'?
A. Xeon processors are optimized for parallel execution
B. Opteron processors are optimized for parallel execution
C. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed
D. Xeon processors use an integrated memory controller that operates at core processor speed
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of nodes supported in a Fibre Channel Switched Fabric (FC-SW)
environment?
A. 125
B. 126
C. 15 million
D. 16 million
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a characteristic of a PCI-X-based bus?
A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system
B. It is fully backward compatible with conventional PCI devices
C. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system
D. It is compatible with conventional PCI devices only after updating to newer drivers
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer asks you for information about the advantages of RAID 6 over other RAID levels What can
you recommend? (Select three)
A. Performance is equivalent to RAID 5 when reading data.
B. It is the most cost-effective of the fault-tolerant RAID solutions.
C. lt has greater faulttolerancethan RAID4, RAID 1+0, or RAID5.
D. It uses the most storage capacity for fault tolerance of all the RAID levels.
E. it is ideal for applications requiring large logical drives with many physical drives.
Answer: ACE

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NO.14 Which system architecture is displayed?
A. Dual Peer I/O Bus (DPIO)
B. Triple Peer I/O Bus (TPIO)
C. Highly Parallel System Architecture (HPSA)
D. Memory and I/O Controller Architecture (MIOC)
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which backup type would you recommend if a customer environment requires saving the latest
version of each file?
A. full
B. copy
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement best describes PCI Express architecture?
A. Data is sent in parallel
B. Data is sent serially over each link
C. PCI Express has more pins than PCI-X
D. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is an advantage of using iSCSI?
A. it enables the use of SCSI cables for Ethernet communications
B. it enables the use of SAS and SATA drives using standard SCSI controllers
C. It overcomes the inability to use shared storage devices in a heterogeneous environment
D. It overcomes the distance limitations associated with standard Fibre Channel storage transport
Answer: A

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NO.18 How does the operation of RAID memory differ from RAID 5 disk storage? (Select three)
A. Data is written sequentially to all banks of memory
B. Data is written simultaneously to all banks of memory
C. Existing parity information must be read before calculating the new parity value
D. There is no need to read the existing parity before calculating a new parity value
E. The memory controller writes parity information to a dedicated parity bank of DIMMs
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 What happens if you install a 66MHz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? (Select two)
A. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 32-bit mode
C. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode
D. Any 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards
Answer: AB

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NO.20 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y26
Exam Name: HP (Building a Complete HP ProCurve Mobility Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 On an HP ProCurve switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A. IP routing
B. a dynamic routing protocol
C. MSTP
D. IP muticast
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer requires high levels of redundancy and availability for a critical business network that uses
two HP ProCurve 8212zl switches in the core. What is a potential advantage of deploying the VRRP on
thest switches?
A. It will enable the switches to learn redudant paths to remote networks
B. It will enable the switches to provide redundant default gateways to clicents.
C. It will enable the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-aware clients
D. It will enable the switches to provide redundant links to the distribution layer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have verified that an HP ProCurve Switch 3500yl is correctly configured for PIM dense mode. The
witch s IGMP table shows active hosts that are memebers of multicast group 239.193.22.22. The muticast
is in progress, and all hosts are reciving the content ,However, the muticast group does not appear in the
witch s PIM route table.
What does this indicate about the 239.193.22.22 muticast group?
A. The switch is forwarding the muticast at Layer2.
B. Other muticast routers are configured for PIM sparse.
C. The server and IGMP hosts are in different VLANs.
D. The switch is Querier for the group.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You must design an MSTP solution for a customer network that uses HP ProCurve 5412zl switches in
the core and 3500yl switches at the edge. All switches will belong to single MST region. How can you
determine how may MST instances will be required to ensure that all links are in a forwarding state for at
least one VLAN?
A. Determine how many switches have identical VLAN configurations
B. Count the nubmer of redundant paths between the core and one edge switch.
C. Count the switches at the network edge
D. Determine the total number of VLANs configured on the switches.
Answer: B

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NO.5 what is the effect of the following command , entered at the CLI of an Hp ProCurve Switches 5412zl?
5412zl(ospf)#redistribute rip
A. The router will assume the role of ASBR
B. The router will become eligible for election as DR
C. The router will assume the role of ABR
D. The router will summarize RIP routes in OSPF LSAs
Answer: A

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NO.6 You must configure an Hp ProCurve switch 8212zl to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 10.
What must e true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must be an address on a muti-ntted interface
B. It must match the router s address for the VLAN 10 interface
C. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 10 on the Backup router.
D. It must use a classful network mask
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have enable Dynamic ARP Protection on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch.When is it necessary to
define IP-to MAC address bindings?
A. when you must lock down the switch s IP addresses to its base MAC address
B. when you must specify clients connected to untrusted ports
C. when you must identify devices that do not use DHCP,but have a static IP address assigned.
D. when you must protect uplink ports that connect to other swithes that do not support Dynamic ARP
Protection.
E. when you must provide sevurity to ports where different clients may connect at different times
Answer: C

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NO.8 You must use the web management interface of an HP MSM710 Controller to perform a manual
upgrade of the controller s software. In the management interface . which location must be specified as
the source for the software file?
A. TFTP server
B. your workstation
C. controller auxilary port
D. your FTP server
Answer: B

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NO.9 You must configure an HP ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated with
VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A. It must be an address assigned to a muti-netted interface
B. It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C. It must match the Backup router s address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D. It must match the Owner router s address for the VLAN 10 interface
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button
What is the role of the HP ProCurve Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A. ABR in areas 5 and 0
B. ASBR in areas 5 and 0
C. internal router in area 5
D. internal router in area 0
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 147 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which HP resource checks for firmware interoperability problems, inventories SAN switches, and
performs an analysis of zoning configurations?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Design Reference Guide
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
C. HP Storage Essentials Enterprise Edition
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which HP service will provide a customer with a 3D model of the airflows and cooling conditions in their
data center environment?
A. Thermal Quick Assessment for HPBladeSystem Environments
B. Thermal Comprehensive Assessment
C. Thermal Quick Assessment
D. Thermal Intermediate Assessment
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are analyzing a customer's environment to design an expansion of an existing SAN infrastructure.
What must you consider?
A. Integrating consolidated switch management is necessary when using more than four switches.
B. Integrating different vendors in a SAN fabric maximizes availability and decreases complexity.
C. Merging switches of different series can reduce the supported maximum hop-count.
D. Mixing switches with different speeds is not supported in an HP SAN topology.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer requests a memory and processor upgrade of their existing enterprise solution. Where will
you find information on the solution you should propose?
A. HPSalesBuilder for Windows
B. HP System Selling Guide
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP Integrity, HP 9000, and carrier-grade servers Configuration Guide
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer purchased several HP servers from your company five years ago and needs an
upgrade to new hardware. He recently met with Cisco and has asked you to explain why the HP
BladeSystem is a better solution. Which features are supported by only the HP BladeSystem solution?
(Select three.)
A. Virtual Connect
B. N+1 power supply redundancy
C. Insight Software
D. Thermal Logic
E. Ethernet andFibre Channel connectivity
F. AMD and Intel processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Which EVA product includes an embedded Command View console on the management module as an
alternative to a dedicated management server for basic functionality?
A. EVA6400
B. EVA6200
C. EVA8400
D. EVA4400
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which HP product simplifies the monitoring of HP servers, storage, and third-party systems through
management standards such as WMI, WBEM, and SNMP?
A. Insight Remote Support
B. HP Systems Insight Manager
C. Storage Essentials
D. Operations Manager
Answer: B

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NO.8 When server density is your customer's main concern, which server solution should you recommend?
A. HP Integrityrx servers
B. HP ProLiant ML servers
C. HP BladeSystem servers
D. HP ProLiant DL servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are key features of the HP Modular Cooling System G2? (Select two.)
A. It supports up to a 35kW load in one rack.
B. It can be ordered in multiple rack sizes.
C. It can be split into two separate units.
D. It monitors internal temperatures of rack servers.
E. It can be configured to cool two racks.
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which HP tool provides configuration capability for HP ProLiant and Integrity servers, workstations,
and StorageWorks products?
A. HPStorageWorks Sizer
B. ActiveAnswers Sizers
C. HPeConfigure Solutions tool
D. Enterprise SystemsSizer
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which HP server family offers 100% availability?
A. HP Integrity NonStop servers
B. HP ProLiant server blades
C. HP Integrity server blades
D. HP Integrity Superdome servers
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are presenting a Superdome-based solution to your customer, and need Visio diagrams to make it
clear that your solution fits his requirements. Which source would you use for the diagrams?
A. Active Answers
B. Product Bulletin
C. SalesBuilder for Windows
D. SuperdomeSizer
Answer: C

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NO.13 You need to verify the interoperability of your proposed solution with the customers existing SAN fabric.
Which resource lists the SAN fabric connectivity and switch interoperability rules between C-Series and
B-Series switches?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
B. HPStorageWorks Sizer
C. HP Storage Essential SAN Visibility
D. HPStorageWorks SAN Design Reference Guide
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which server platforms provide significant power savings by sharing power supplies and fansacross
multiple server nodes? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant ML500
B. HP ProLiant DL700
C. HP Integrity Superdome
D. HP ProLiant BladeSystem
E. HP ProLiant DL1000
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 Which component can be migrated between nPars?
A. interleaved memory
B. base cell
C. floating cell
D. vPar
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which tool do you use to create a valid configuration and quote for your customer?
A. HP Parts Reference Guide
B. HP Systems Selling Guide
C. HPSalesBuilder for Windows
D. HP Product Bulletin
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are components of HP ProActive Defense strategy? (Select three.)
A. Adaptive EDGE Architecture
B. Threat Management
C. Secure Mobility
D. Trusted Infrastructure
E. Access Control
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.18 Your customer has several HP-UX 11i applications running on an HP Integrity server. Which tool
should you propose that will enable her to build intelligent policy for resource partitioning and
management?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. HPGlancePlus Pack
C. HP-UX Workload Manager
D. HP Virtual Resource Management
Answer: C

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NO.19 What determines the applications and capabilities that are included with an HP OpenVMS license?
A. the number of processor sockets
B. the number of processor cores
C. the type of operating environment
D. the type of cell board
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true about the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. It transitions away from a product-centric approach to a shared-service management model.
B. It is a strategy built specifically for enterprise customers.
C. It delivers scalable and flexible IT services from an external source.
D. It is built on a model of eight key enablers that reflect recent changes in technology.
Answer: A

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NO.21 What are characteristics of HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Protected
B. Managed
C. Consolidated
D. Virtualized
E. Optimized
F. Orchestrated
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.22 Which offline tool contains complete information about recently announced or enhanced HP products?
A. HP Product Bulletin
B. Offline Diagnostics Environment
C. HPeConfigure Solutions tool
D. HPPartSurfer
Answer: A

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NO.23 Your customer's IT infrastructure consists of 64 HP server blades, two redundant Fibre Channel SANs,
and an HP ProCurve Networking switch. Which HP solution should you recommend to reduce physical
server-to-network cabling and to separate server and network administration?
A. HP Virtual Connect
B. HP 1:10Gb Ethernet
C. HPProCurve 6120G
D. HP GbE2C Layer 2/3
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which HP product is designed for high density rack deployments and uses the heat exchanger to
recirculate and cool the hot server exhaust air?
A. Water Hookup kit for HP Rack Systems
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. HP Modular Cooling System G2
D. Rack 10000 G2 with Rack Cooling Extender
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which benefits of HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays should you emphasize to your customer? (Select
two.)
A. integrated Ultrium-based library for faster backups
B. iSCSI connectivity
C. supportsAsynchonous SRDF replication
D. multi-site data replication capability
E. supports online firmware upgrades
Answer: D,E

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NO.26 A new customer is looking for a virtual tape library solution that will support more than 1PB of usable
disk space. Which storage solutions meet these requirements? (Select two)
A. HPStorageWorks 9000 Virtual Library System
B. HPStorageWorks 6000 Virtual Library System
C. HPStorageWorks RDX Removable Disk Backup System
D. HPStorageWorks D2D4000 Backup System
E. HPStorageWorks 12000 Virtual Library System EVA Gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.27 .Which Oracle product helps improve the efficiency of corporate operations, adapts rapidly to changes
in the supply chain, and services customers more effectively through multiple channels?
A. JD EdwardsEnterpriseOne
B. Oracle E-Business Suite
C. Oracle Retail
D. Oracle Siebel
Answer: C

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NO.28 Your customer recently implemented an HP Integrity rx8640 server running HP-UX 11i v3. He needs to
deploy multiple operating systems on the same physical server with electrical isolation. Which HP solution
allows the customer to isolate multiple operating systems that are running on a single server?
A. HP-UX 11i Virtual partitions (vPars)
B. HPnPartitions (nPars)
C. HP-UX Secure Resource Partitions (SRP)
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines (Integrity VM)
Answer: B

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NO.29 Your customer has multiple racks of older Dell PowerEdge servers and is running out of power and
space in her data center. She needs higher server rack density and reduced power consumption.
Which HP server families would you recommend to replace her existing hardware? (Select two.)
A. HP DL
B. HP SL
C. HP ML
D. HP RX
E. HP BL
Answer: B,E

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NO.30 When is it beneficial to use SAS drives instead of SATA drives?
A. when high disk capacity is required
B. when hot-swap capability is required
D .when the lowest cost per GB is required
C. when high reliability is required
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y28
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve ASE Mobility 2010 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Match each security technology with its description.
Answer:

NO.2 What information is required to create license keys for PCM+ and its plug-ins? (Select two.)
A. Registration ID
B. PCM+ Update ID
C. Hardware ID
D. Serial Number for PCM+
Answer: AC

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NO.3 You are assisting a customer who needs to purchase licenses to use Network Immunity Manager (NIM)
after the NIM trial period has expired. How many NIM licenses does the customer require?
A. one for each PCM+ device license
B. one for each wireless device that supports NIM
C. one for each ProCurve switch that supports Virus Throttling
D. one for each switch or access point
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on this network. You have not performed any
additional configuration. How many subnets will be displayed in the navigation tree when you log in to
PCM+ for the first time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on the network shown in the exhibit. You have
not performed any additional configuration. Which device(s) will be included in the network map when you
log in to PCM+ for the first time?
A. switch B only
B. switch C only
C. switch D only
D. server A and switch B
E. switches B, C, and D
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing PCM+, Network Immunity Manager (NIM), and Identity Driven Manager (IDM) for
evaluation at a customer site. When must a license be added to the PCM+ installation? (Select two.)
A. when the customer plans to use IDM immediately after installation
B. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage wireless and wired devices
C. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage more than 350 devices
D. when the customer plans to continue using PCM+ after the 60-day trial period
E. when the customer plans to use NIM immediately after installation
Answer: CD

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NO.7 You must troubleshoot a PCM+ installation at a customer site. Which issue could indicate a mismatch
between the SNMP read community configured on PCM+ and that configured on a device?
A. PCM+ cannot collect traffic statistics.
B. PCM+ cannot scan the device configuration.
C. PCM+ cannot discover the device.
D. PCM+ cannot change the device's configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which PCM+ feature enables Network Immunity Manager (NIM) to detect the anomalous or
threatening behavior of a client on the network?
A. Identity Manager
B. Policy Management
C. Agent Manager
D. Traffic Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
What must you do to enable the AP named "Confidential" to function properly in this mobility solution?
A. Enable the radio.
B. Configure a management IP address.
C. Synchronize the configuration.
D. Upgrade the firmware.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
The HP ProCurve 5406zl switch labeled as Managed device?has experienced a PCM+ Event that must
be sent as a trap. If PCM+ and the devices are configured correctly, which device will receive the trap?
A. PCM+ server
B. Remote Agent for Location 1
C. Remote Agent for Location 2
D. Intrusion Prevention System at Location 2
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E26
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Stage Four of the HP Sales Cycle is the "Develop and propose the solution" stage. What is a key
goal of this stage?
A. define final terms and conditions
B. confirm customer's budget and commitment
C. address customer requirements and show immediate ROI
D. assess the opportunity in terms of workload and performance
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which focus area represents an old business paradigm?
A. business outcome focus
B. focus on innovation
C. focus on shared IT assets across the enterprise
D. operational focus
Answer: D

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NO.3 Performing a SWOT analysis will help you understand the customer perspective and positively
affect the outcome of the HP solution. Which attributes are examined during a SWOT analysis?
A. services, workforce, outcomes, and tools
B. standards, workloads, operations, and technology
C. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
D. servers, workstations, operating systems, and terminals
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement best describes stock market regulations, environmental requirements, and
country policies?
A. They are major contributors to an economic recession.
B. They are business drivers that affect the current marketplace.
C. They are internal factors that customers can monitor and control.
D. They are primary considerations among systems administrators.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a revenue-generating initiative that a company might undertake?
A. supply chain consolidation
B. new product launch
C. IT staff outsourcing
D. virtualization study
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K16
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which Adaptive Infrastructure key enabler allows customers to shift the focus of their human resources
from maintenance-related tasks to more strategic or innovative requirements?
A. security
B. automation
C. virtualization
D. power and cooling
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which HP Adaptive Infrastructure enabler aggregates physical resources, and presents those
resources as capabilities that can be used by applications, desktop clients, or other types of storage
clients?
A. automation
B. virtualization
C. management
D. IT systems and services
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer wants to discuss the industry trend toward organizations developing a 24 x 7 lights-out data
center. Which HP business technology strategy addresses this trend?
A. Grid Computing
B. Adaptive Infrastructure
C. Business Information Optimization
D. Business Technology Optimization
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP StorageWorks Disk Array software shifts most of the replication workload to the remote site,
reducing resource consumption on the primary storage system and improving production application
performance?
A. XP External Storage
B. XP Replication Monitor
C. XP Continuous Access Journal
D. XP Continuous Access Asynchronous
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which term describes how business technology results are measured?
A. reduced costs
B. strategic growth
C. business enablers
D. business outcomes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z05
Exam Name: HP (Selling the HP ProCurve Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What enables you to configure HP ProCurve products and create offers and quotations based on those
configurations?
A. HPProCurve Network Design Center
B. HPProCurve Configurator
C. HPProCurve Product Portfolio poster
D. HPProCurve Networking Quick Reference Guide
Answer: B

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NO.2 What has HP ProCurve designed in several of its high-speed switches to consolidate the function of
many individual chips, including software, onto a single chip?
A. VoIP
B. ASIC
C. IPS
D. PoE
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a VLAN?
A. a LAN that does not use wires and is enabled by wireless technology
B. a large, geographically dispersed network consisting of two or more LANs
C. a network that allows secure private data to be sent through a public network
D. a logical division within a physical network that divides devices into separate broadcast
domains
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company's private network is divided into several subnets. Which devices can allow traffic to flow
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which OSI Layer functionality enables a switch to route traffic?
A. Network Layer (Layer 3)
B. Physical Layer (Layer 1)
C. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4}
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-029
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 1150/1300 series Datasheet)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Approximately how many pages does the high-capacity toner cartridge print on the HP LaserJet 1300
series printer?
A. 3000
B. 2500
C. 4000
D. 1300
Answer: C

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NO.2 What must be done to run paper through the printer with the covers off.?
A. Remove the left-side cover and depress the engine-test switch. A single test page prints.
B. Remove the right-side cover and depress the engine-test switch. A single test page prints.
C. Remove the left-side cover and depress the engine-test switch during the power-on cycle. A single test
page punts.
D. The printer does not allow you to run paper through the paper path with the covers off.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Approximately how many pages does the standard toner cartridge print on the HP LaserJet 1300 series
printer?
A. 1500
B. 1000
C. 2500
D. 3000
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-C02
Exam Name: HP (HP Color Laserjet CP6015 and CM6040 MFP Service Qualification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What advantages do the CM6040f/30f bundles have over the base models.? (Select two.)
A. The f bundles have more RAM.
B. The f bundles have an analog fax.
C. The f bundles have a color display.
D. The f bundles have two extra input trays.
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of staple jobs accepted, within one job request, by the Stapler/Stacker
Output Bins?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which CP6015 Series printer includes a hard drive?
A. CP6015x
B. CP6015xh
C. CP6015dn
D. CP6015de
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M31
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Identify the steps for creating a Release Tree and place them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.2 Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?
A. visual analysis graph
B. live analysis graph
C. trend analysis graph
D. summary graph
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?
A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization
B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization
C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization
D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an advantage of using cross project customization?
A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you
to standardize policies and procedures across projects.
B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables
you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?
A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Place the test management process steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.7 What does the Management module address? (Select two.)
A. libraries
B. test resources
C. release models
D. dashboards
E. releases
Answer: AE

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NO.8 What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?
A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments
B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments
C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images
D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should
you create to accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a release?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high
priority defects have been closed
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)
A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts
Answer: ACDG

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NO.14 The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is using. From which
toolbar can you access this information?
A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software
Answer: C

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NO.15 You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which
graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still need to run?
A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?
A. business
B. group
C. functional
D. testing
E. security
Answer: E

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NO.18 What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F. custom document generator
Answer: BCE

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NO.19 You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should
you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
Answer: BE

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NO.20 What is a cycle?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: C

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